WebAIM - Web Accessibility In Mind

E-mail List Archives

Does a failure of WCAG 2 3.1.1 automatically mean a failure of 3.1.2?

for

From: Patrick H. Lauke
Date: Oct 6, 2014 5:07PM

WCAG 2 3.1.2 SC states that "The human language of each passage or
phrase in the content can be programmatically determined [...]". If a
page already fails 3.1.1, failing to provide the "default human
language"and thus making it impossible to programmatically determine it
for the page as a whole, would I be right in thinking that this also
makes it impossible to programmatically determine the language for any
passage.phrase?

And conversely, even if there are no language changes in the current
document, if a page passes 3.1.1, would it also automatically pass 3.1.2
as if you can determine the language for the whole, you can also
programmatically determine it for any passage/phrase?

(Context here is that, unless there are actual language changes, some
WCAG 2 reports mark 3.1.2 as non applicable, rather than pass/fail...but
I'd contend that it should be assessed based on the above logic).

Thoughts?

P
--
Patrick H. Lauke

www.splintered.co.uk | https://github.com/patrickhlauke
http://flickr.com/photos/redux/ | http://redux.deviantart.com
twitter: @patrick_h_lauke | skype: patrick_h_lauke