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Re: is this table linearizable?

for

From: ben morrison
Date: Nov 28, 2006 3:30AM

On 11/28/06, Patrick H. Lauke < <EMAIL REMOVED> > wrote:
> Quoting Shrirang Sahasrabudhe < <EMAIL REMOVED> >:
>
> > Can anyone tell me whether the following table is linearizable or not?
> > I feel it is not, correct me if wrong.
>
> Just to clarify: in general terms, the concept of linearisation only
> applies to *layout* tables. Data tables, as in your example, are a
> different matter altogether...it's not the linearisation that needs to
> be looked at there, but the actual structure.
>
> > <table>
> > <tr><td>country0</td><td>country1</td><td>country2</td></tr>
> > <tr><td>capital0</td><td>capital1</td><td>capital2</td></tr>
> > </table>
>
> Just from that, I'd say it should really be redefined as
>
> <table>
> <thead>
> <tr><th>country0</th><th>country1</th><th>country2</th></tr>
> </thead>
> <tbody>
> <tr><td>capital0</td><td>capital1</td><td>capital2</td></tr>
> </tbody>
> </table>


Should scope be used as well?

<table>
<thead>
<tr><th scope="col">country0</th><th scope="col">country1</th><th
scope="col">country2</th></tr>
</thead>
<tbody>
<tr><td>capital0</td><td>capital1</td><td>capital2</td></tr>
</tbody>
</table>

ben
--
Ben Morrison