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Re: Javascript - Compliance Issue


From: Langum, Michael J
Date: Oct 28, 2010 7:33AM


In my opinion the most important thing is to assure that users of AT have access to all the information and functions available to everyone else.

You can say "Some part of the website is non-functional when JavaScript is disabled," IF --
1. the JavaScript does not provide information or functionality (e.g. mouseover affects), OR
2. the functionality and information are also provided without JavaScript.

Otherwise, JavaScript that exclusively provides functionality and/or information must work with AT.

-- Mike

-----Original Message-----
From: <EMAIL REMOVED> [mailto: <EMAIL REMOVED> ] On Behalf Of A J
Sent: Thursday, October 28, 2010 9:04 AM
Subject: [WebAIM] Javascript - Compliance Issue


I'm trying to find an answer for the question: "Some part of the website is non-functional when JavaScript is disabled. Is this acceptable?"

I read WebAim article and few more interesting thoughts about this topic over the web, but could not find a straight answer as yes or no. All the discussions were more of a debate. I understand that the topic is debatable and really it depends on how we perceive it (am I wrong?). But still, can anyone tell, if some part of site is non-functional when JavaScript is disabled will make a compliance issue as per WCAG 2.0? Provided, we've tried our best not use JavaScript wherever possible.