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Re: Javascript - Compliance Issue


From: Steve Green
Date: Oct 28, 2010 7:54AM

Our interpretation of WCAG 2.0 is that a website is compliant even if it
does not work without JavaScript. JavaScript is considered to be an
'accessibility supported technology' insofar as it meets at least one of the
criteria specified in WCAG 2.0. You just need to state that it is a
requirement in your technology baseline.

This does not seem satisfactory to me, but I guess the WCAG thinking is that
everyone can easily and cheaply (or at no cost at all) obtain a user agent
that supports JavaScript. If there are constraints such as corporate IT
policy that prevent users from doing so, that is not an accessibility issue
- in fact it's not your problem at all.

Steve Green
Managing Director
Test Partners Ltd

-----Original Message-----
[mailto: <EMAIL REMOVED> ] On Behalf Of A J
Sent: 28 October 2010 14:04
Subject: [WebAIM] Javascript - Compliance Issue


I'm trying to find an answer for the question: "Some part of the website is
non-functional when JavaScript is disabled. Is this acceptable?"


I read WebAim article and few more interesting thoughts about this topic
over the web, but could not find a straight answer as yes or no. All the
discussions were more of a debate. I understand that the topic is debatable
and really it depends on how we perceive it (am I wrong?). But still, can
anyone tell, if some part of site is non-functional when JavaScript is
disabled will make a compliance issue as per WCAG 2.0? Provided, we've tried
our best not use JavaScript wherever possible.