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Javascript turned off a violation or user preference?

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From: Judith.A.Blankman@wellsfargo.com
Date: Apr 21, 2015 4:09PM

The latest WebAIM survey indicates that 97.6% of respondents have javascript enabled. We are wondering about the remaining 2.4%.

If a person has javascript turned off and cannot perform the primary function of a site, like pay for and download a music file, or book a vacation, is this considered a user preference or a defect?

On the WebAIM site (http://webaim.org/techniques/javascript/) under the heading "JavaScript Reliance" 2nd paragraph it says:

"Accessibility guidelines also require scripted interfaces to be accessible. While WCAG 1.0 from 1999 required that pages be functional and accessible with scripting disabled, WCAG 2.0 and all other modern guidelines allow you to require JavaScript, but the scripted content or interactions must be compliant with the guidelines."

So do I interpret this to mean that when the site states that javascript is required, and javascript is turned off, that this is considered a user preference and not a defect on the site provided it's communicated clearly to that person? Is the Accessibility community in agreement about this?

We want to do the right thing, just don't want to introduce issues unknowingly. The developer understands the need for <noscript> alternatives for scripting, as described on http://webaim.org/techniques/javascript/alternatives.

It's a matter of timing and understanding if the lack of <noscript> alternatives at launch would be considered a barrier, an obstacle, or an annoyance.


Thanks,


Judith Blankman

Accessibility Strategist
Customer Experience (CX)
WFVC Digital | 1 Front Street | San Francisco, CA 94111
Tel: 415-947-6583 | Cell: 415-601-1114

MAC: A0195-171


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