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Re: Does aria-owns child need to exist prior to being used?

for

From: Mark Magennis
Date: Dec 13, 2018 6:32AM

Thanks for that Glen. I guess this isn't specific to aria-owns. It's about any element that uses IDREFS.

Mark

Mark Magennis
Skillsoft | mobile: +353 87 60 60 162
Accessibility Specialist

-----Original Message-----
From: WebAIM-Forum < <EMAIL REMOVED> > On Behalf Of glen walker
Sent: 12 December 2018 20:35
To: WebAIM Discussion List < <EMAIL REMOVED> >
Subject: Re: [WebAIM] Does aria-owns child need to exist prior to being used?

I think if someone knew the answer, you should still create test
implementations to verify, especially given the variety of
AT/browser/platform combinations.

I don't think it's well documented (at least that I've been able to find),
about the timing of such things. If an element is created dynamically that
is referenced in an IDREFS
<https://www.w3.org/TR/2004/REC-xmlschema-2-20041028/#IDREFS> attribute
(aria-labelledby, aria-describedby, aria-owns, aria-controls, etc), when
does AT try to reference that object?

I know when I'm viewing a page and have the code inspector up, I can change
things dynamically in the code inspector and most of the time, AT will pick
up the change. It's a nice way to test concepts without writing an
example. (I say "most of the time" because occasionally I won't hear what
I expected after a change, but I can't specifically point out what didn't
work.) I'm usually adding new aria attributes, or changing the value of
existing attributes. But the timing on doing that in the code inspector is
quite different than the timing you'll have when doing stuff from
javascript.

Glen